Answers key

1. C Occasionally patients with infectious mononucleosis develop a potent cold agglutinin
   with anti-I specificity. This cold autoantibody can cause strong hemolysis and
   hemolytic anemia.
2. C HIV infection brings about several hematological abnormalities seen on peripheral
   blood smear examination; most patients demonstrate reactive lymphocytes and have
   granulocytopenia.
3. A Döhle bodies are RNA-rich areas within polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) that
   are oval and light blue. Although often associated with infectious states, they are seen
   in a wide range of conditions and toxic reactions, including hemolytic and pernicious
   anemias, chronic granulocytic leukemia, and therapy with antineoplastic drugs. The
   other inclusions are associated with erythrocytes.
4. B Myeloperoxidase, lysozyme, and acid phosphatase are enzymes that are contained in
   the primary granules of neutrophils. The contents of secondary and tertiary granules
   include lactoferrin, collagenase, NADPH oxidase, and alkaline phosphatase.
5. D The mean relative lymphocyte percentage for a 1-year-old child is 61% compared with
   the mean lymphocyte percentage of 35% in an adult.
6. B Neutrophil changes associated with infection may include neutrophilia, shift to the left,
   toxic granulation, Döhle bodies, and vacuolization. Pelgeroid hyposegmentation is
   noted in neutrophils from individuals with congenital Pelger–Huët anomaly and those
   with an acquired anomaly induced by drug ingestion or secondary to certain
   conditions, such as leukemia.
7. A Neutropenia is defined as an absolute decrease in the number of circulating
   neutrophils. This condition is present in patients having neutrophil counts of less than
   1.5 × 109/L.
8. B Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is a disorder of neutrophil phagocytic dysfunction caused
   by depressed chemotaxis and delayed degranulation. The degranulation disturbance is
   attributed to interference from the giant lysosomal granules characteristic of this
   disorder.
9. C Pelger–Huët anomaly is a benign familial condition reported in 1 out of 6,000
   individuals. Care must be taken to differentiate Pelger–Huët cells from the numerous
   band neutrophils and metamyelocytes that may be observed during severe infection or
   a shift-to-the-left of immaturity in granulocyte stages.
10. D If both the heterophile antibody test and the EBV-IgM tests yield negative results in a
    patient with reactive lymphocytosis and a suspected viral infection, serum should be
    analyzed for IgM antibodies to CMV. CMV belongs to the herpes virus family and is
    endemic worldwide. CMV infection is the most common cause of heterophile-negative
    infectious mononucleosis.
11. A The biochemical products of the respiratory burst involved in neutrophil particle
    ingestion during phagocytosis are H2O2 and O2–. The activated neutrophil discharges
    the enzyme NADPH oxidase into the phagolysosome, where it converts O2 to O2–,
    which is then reduced to H2O2.
12. D Both reactive lymphocytes and blasts may have basophilic cytoplasm, a high N:C
    ratio, and the presence of prominent nucleoli. Blasts, however, have an extremely fine
    nuclear chromatin staining pattern as viewed on a Wright– and Giemsa–stained smear.

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Answers key

1. D Megaloblastic anemia is macrocytic normochromic because there is no defect in Hgb
   synthesis. These anemias comprise a group of asynchronized anemias characterized by
   defective nuclear maturation resulting from defective DNA synthesis. This abnormality
   accounts for the megaloblastic features in bone marrow and macrocytosis in peripheral
   blood.
2. D Pernicious anemia is caused by lack of intrinsic factor, which prevents vitamin B12
   absorption.
3. B Megaloblastic anemias are associated with ineffective erythropoiesis and, therefore, a
   decrease in the reticulocyte count.
4. B Administration of folic acid to a patient with vitamin B12 deficiency will correct the
   hematological abnormalities, but the neurological problems will persist. This helps
   confirm the correct diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency.
5. D Ineffective erythropoiesis is caused by destruction of erythroid precursor cells prior to
   their release from bone marrow. Pernicious anemia results from defective DNA
   synthesis; it is suggested that the asynchronous development of RBCs renders them
   more prone to intramedullary destruction.
6. D Patients with pernicious anemia demonstrate pancytopenia with low WBC, PLT, and
   RBC counts. Because this is a megaloblastic process and a DNA maturation defect, all
   cell lines are affected. In bone marrow, this results in abnormally large precursor cells,
   maturation asynchrony, hyperplasia of all cell lines, and a low M:E ratio.
7. B Patients with obstructive liver disease may have macrocytes on their peripheral blood
   smear because of an increased tendency toward deposition of lipid on the surface of
   RBCs. Consequently, the RBCs are larger or more macrocytic than normal RBCs.
8. C Macrocytes in true megaloblastic conditions are oval, as opposed to the round shape of
   macrocytes usually seen in alcoholism and obstructive liver disease.
9. C The RBC indices in a patient with megaloblastic anemia are macrocytic and
   normochromic. The macrocytosis is prominent, with MCV ranging from 100 to 130
   fL.
10. B The patient will have increased MCV. One of the causes of a macrocytic anemia that
    is not megaloblastic is increased reticulocyte count, here noted as increased
    polychromasia. Reticulocytes are polychromatic macrocytes; therefore, MCV is
    slightly increased.

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Answers key

1. B Osmotic fragility is decreased because numerous target cells are present and have
   increased surface volume in patients with thalassemia major.
2. C In IDA, there is an increase in TIBC and in RBC protoporphyrin. Serum iron and
   ferritin levels are decreased. IDA is characterized by a microcytic hypochromic
   anemia.
3. D In IDA, serum iron and ferritin levels are decreased, and TIBC and RBC
   protoporphyrin are increased. In chronic disease, serum iron and TIBC are both
   decreased because the iron is trapped in reticuloendothelial (RE) cells and is
   unavailable to RBCs for Hgb production.
4. B Thalassemia and IDA are both classified as microcytic, hypochromic anemias. IDA is
   caused by defective heme synthesis, whereas thalassemia is caused by decreased
   globin chain synthesis.
5. A IDA is characterized by decreased plasma iron, increased TIBC, decreased %
   saturation, and microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Iron deficiency occurs in three
   phases: iron depletion, iron-deficient erythropoiesis, and IDA.
6. D Ferritin enters serum from all ferritin-producing tissues and, therefore, is considered a
   good indicator of body storage iron. Because iron stores must be depleted before
   anemia develops, low serum ferritin levels precede the fall in serum iron associated
   with IDA.
7. D Sideroblastic anemias are a group of disorders characterized by hypochromic anemia,
   ineffective erythropoiesis, an increase in serum and tissue iron, and the presence of
   ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow.
8. C In thalassemia major, there is little or no production of the β-chain, resulting in
   severely depressed or no synthesis of Hgb A. Severe anemia is seen, along with
   skeletal abnormalities and marked splenomegaly. The patient is usually supported with
   transfusion therapy.
9. D Patients with thalassemia major are unable to synthesize the β-chain; hence, little or no
   Hgb A is produced. However, γ-chains continue to be synthesized and lead to variable
   elevations of Hgb F in these patients.
10. C The indices will provide a morphological classification of this anemia. MCV is 75 fL
    (reference range 80–100 fL), MCH is 20 pg (reference range 27–31 pg), and MCHC is
    26.6% (reference range 32%–36%). Therefore, the anemia is microcytic hypochromic.
11. C Hgb A2 is part of the normal complement of adult Hgb. This Hgb is elevated in β-
    thalassemia minor because the individual with this condition has only one normal β-
    gene; consequently, there is a slight elevation of Hgb A2 and Hgb F.
12. B Thirty to fifty percent of the individuals with anemia of chronic inflammation
    demonstrate a microcytic hypochromic blood picture, with decrease in serum iron.
    Serum iron is decreased because it is unable to escape from the RE cells to be
    delivered to the NRBCs in bone marrow.

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Answers key

1. C Hypersplenic conditions are generally described by the following four criteria: (1)
   cytopenias of one or more peripheral cell lines, (2) splenomegaly, (3) bone marrow
   hyperplasia, and (4) resolution of cytopenia by splenectomy.
2. B The spleen is the supreme filter of the body, pitting imperfections from the erythrocyte
   without destroying the integrity of the membrane.
3. D Spherocytes lose their deformability because of a defect in spectrin, a membrane
   protein, and are therefore prone to splenic sequestration and hemolysis.
4. C Classic features of intravascular hemolysis, such as hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria,
   or hemosiderinuria, do not occur in HS. The hemolysis seen in HS is an extravascular
   process, rather than an intravascular process.
5. D Spherocytic cells have decreased tolerance to swelling and, therefore, hemolyse at a
   higher concentration of sodium salt compared with normal RBCs.
6. C Sickle cell disease is a chronic hemolytic anemia classified as a normocytic,
   normochromic anemia.
7. D The major Hgb in sickle cell trait is Hgb A, which constitutes 50% to 70% of the total.
   Hgb S comprises 20% to 40%, and Hgb A2 and Hgb F are present in normal amounts.
8. B The structural mutation for Hgb S is the substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the
   sixth position of the β-chain. Because glutamic acid is negatively charged, this
   decreases its rate of migration toward the anode at pH 8.6.
9. D Substitution of a positively charged amino acid for a negatively charged amino acid in
   Hgb C disease results in a slower electrophoretic mobility at pH 8.6.
10. C At pH 8.6, several Hgbs migrate together. These include Hgb A2, Hgb C, Hgb E, Hgb
    0Arab, and Hgb CHarlem. These are located nearest the cathode at pH 8.6.
11. B Electrophoresis at alkaline pH usually shows 50% to 70% Hgb A, 20% to 40% Hgb S,
    and normal levels of Hgb A2 in a patient with the sickle cell trait.
12. D Autosplenectomy occurs in sickle cell anemia as a result of repeated infarcts to the
    spleen caused by an overwhelming sickling phenomenon.
13. A PNH is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in abnormalities of the RBC
    membrane. This causes the RBCs to become highly sensitive to complement-mediated
    hemolysis. Because this is a stem cell disorder, abnormalities are seen in leukocytes
    and PLTs, as well as in RBCs. PNH is characterized by recurrent, episodic
    intravascular hemolysis, hemoglobinuria, and venous thrombosis.
14. D Hemolytic anemia of HUS is associated with reticulocytosis. The anemia seen in
    HUS is multifactorial, with characteristic thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, and
    polychromasia commensurate with the anemia.
15. D The autohemolysis test result is positive in G6PD and PK deficiencies and in HS but
    is normal in PNH because lysis in PNH requires sucrose to enhance complement
    binding. The addition of glucose, sucrose, or adenosine triphosphate (ATP) corrects
    autohemolysis of HS. Autohemolysis of PK can be corrected by ATP.
16. D PCH is caused by the anti-P antibody, a cold autoantibody that binds to the patient’s
    RBCs at low temperatures and fixes complement. In the classic Donath–Landsteiner
    test, hemolysis is demonstrated in a sample placed at 4°C then warmed to 37°C.
17. A Methemoglobin occurs when iron is oxidized to the ferric state. Normally, iron is
    predominantly in the ferrous state in the Hgb that circulates. During intravascular
    hemolysis, the RBCs rupture, releasing Hgb directly into the bloodstream. Haptoglobin
    is a protein that binds to free Hgb. The increased free Hgb in intravascular hemolysis
    causes depletion of haptoglobin. As haptoglobin is depleted, unbound Hgb dimers
    appear in the plasma (hemoglobinemia) and are filtered through the kidneys and
    reabsorbed by the renal tubular cells. The renal tubular uptake capacity is
    approximately 5 g/day of filtered Hgb. Beyond this level, free Hgb appears in urine
    (hemoglobinuria). Hemoglobinuria is associated with hemoglobinemia.
18. B Spherocytes are characteristic of AIHA and cause increased osmotic fragility. In
    AIHAs, production of autoantibodies against one’s own RBCs causes hemolysis or
    phagocytic destruction of RBCs. A positive direct antiglobulin (DAT or Coombs’) test
    identifies in vivo antibody-coated and complement-coated RBCs. A positive DAT
    result distinguishes AIHA from other types of hemolytic anemia that produce
    spherocytes.
19. C In patients with G6PD deficiency, the RBCs are unable to reduce nicotinamide
    adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP); consequently, Hgb is denatured, and Heinz
    bodies are formed. “Bite cells” appear in the peripheral circulation as a result of splenic
    pitting of Heinz bodies.
20. C RBC indices classify the anemia morphologically. Anemias can be classified
    morphologically by using laboratory data; physiologically, based on the mechanism;
    and clinically, based on an assessment of symptoms.
21. C Aplastic anemia has many causes, such as chemical, drug, or radiation poisoning;
    congenital aplasia; and Fanconi syndrome. All result in depletion of hematopoietic
    precursors of all cell lines, leading to peripheral blood pancytopenia.
22. A There are four classifications of CDAs, each characterized by ineffective
    erythropoiesis, increased unconjugated bilirubin, and bizarre multinucleated erythroid
    precursors.
23. D Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is a condition resulting from shear stress to the
    erythrocytes. Fibrin strands are laid down within the microcirculation, and RBCs
    become fragmented as they contact fibrin through the circulation process, forming
    schistocytes.
24. D Chloramphenicol is the drug most often implicated in acquired aplastic anemia.
    About half the cases occur within 30 days after therapy, and about half are reversible.
    Penicillin, tetracycline, and sulfonamides have been implicated in a small number of
    cases.
25. A Sickle cell disorders are intracorpuscular RBC defects that are hereditary and result in
    defective Hgbs being produced. The gene for sickle cell can be inherited either
    homozygously or heterozygously.
26. C Spherocytes are produced in AIHA. Spherocytes may be produced by one of three
    mechanisms. First, they are a natural morphological phase of normal RBC senescence.
    Second, they are produced when the cell surface:volume ratio is decreased, as seen in
    HS. And, third, they may be produced as a result of antibody coating of RBCs. As the
    antibody-coated RBCs travel through the spleen, the antibodies and portions of the
    RBC membrane are removed by macrophages. The membrane repairs itself; hence, the
    RBC’s morphology changes from a biconcave disk to a spherocyte.
27. C This patient’s abnormal peripheral blood smear indicates marked RBC regeneration,
    causing many reticulocytes to be released from bone marrow. Because reticulocytes
    are larger than mature RBCs, MCV will be slightly elevated.
28. B As a result of splenectomy, Howell–Jolly bodies may be seen in great numbers. One
    of the main functions of the spleen is pitting, which allows inclusions to be removed
    from the RBC without destroying the cell membrane.
29. D Reticulocytes are polychromatophilic macrocytes, and the presence of reticulocytes
    indicates RBC regeneration. Bone marrow’s appropriate response to anemia is to
    deliver RBCs prematurely to the peripheral circulation. In this way, reticulocytes and
    possibly NRBCs may be seen in the peripheral blood smear.
30. C HP is a membrane defect characterized by a spectrin abnormality and thermal
    instability. MCV is decreased, and RBCs appear to be budding and fragmented.

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Answers key

1. A Insufficient centrifugation does not pack down RBCs; therefore, the Hct, which is the
   volume of packed cells, will increase.
2. A A mature erythrocyte is approximately 7 to 8 μm in diameter. Variation in normal size
   is denoted by the term anisocytosis. Hypochromia is a term that indicates increased
   central pallor in erythrocytes, and poikilocytosis denotes variation in RBC shape.
3. A The iliac crest is the most frequently used site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy.
   This site is the safest and most easily accessible, with the bone being just beneath the
   skin, and neither blood vessels nor nerves are in the vicinity.
4. B MCV is the average “volume” of the RBCs. This is obtained by dividing the Hct or
   packed cell volume (PCV) by the RBC count in millions per microliter (μL) of blood
   and multiplying by 10. MCV is expressed in cubic microns (μm3) or femtoliters (fL).
5. A Variation in the shape of erythrocytes on a peripheral blood smear is called
   poikilocytosis. Anisocytosis refers to change in size. Hypochromia is increase in central
   pallor in erythrocytes. Polychromasia describes the bluish tinge of the immature
   erythrocytes (reticulocytes) circulating in peripheral blood.
6. C MCHC is the average concentration of Hgb in RBCs expressed as a percentage. It
   expresses the ratio of the weight of Hgb to the volume of erythrocytes and is calculated
   by dividing Hgb by Hct and then multiplying by 100. A decrease in MCHC indicates
   that cells are hypochromic. In this example, (15 ÷ 47) × 100 = 31.9%. The reference
   range for MCHC is 32% to 36%.
7. A The formula used for calculating manual cell counts by using a hemacytometer is:
   Number of cells counted × dilution factor × depth factor (10) ÷ area. In this example,
   36 × 10 × 10 = 3600 ÷ 9 = 400/mm3 or 0.4 × 109/L.
8. D Siderocytes are RBCs containing iron granules and are visible when stained with
   Prussian blue.
9. C Excessive anticoagulant causes shrinkage of cells; thus, Hct will be affected. RBC and
   WBC counts remain the same, as does the Hgb content.
10. B RBC count = number of cells counted × dilution factor × depth factor (10), ÷ area. In
    this example, 336 × 200 × 10 = 672,000 ÷ 0.2 = 3.36 × 106/mm3 = 3.36 × 1012/L.
11. D Neutrophils are highly phagocytic and release lysozymes, peroxidase, and pyrogenic
    proteins. Eosinophils migrate to sites where there is an allergic reaction or parasitic
    infestation and release peroxidase, pyrogens, and other enzymes, including an oxidase
    that neutralizes histamine. Eosinophils are poorly phagocytic and do not release
    lysozyme.
12. B In anemic states, the reticulocyte percentage is not a true measure of reticulocyte
    production. The following formula must be applied to calculate the corrected (for
    anemia) reticulocyte count. Corrected reticulocyte count = reticulocytes (%) × (Hct ÷
    45) where 45 is the average normal Hct. In this case, 7 × (20 ÷ 45) = 3.1.
13. A Osmotic fragility is decreased when numerous sickle cells and target cells are present
    and is increased in the presence of spherocytes. Spherocytes are a prominent feature of
    HS, hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, and acquired hemolytic anemia. The
    osmotic fragility test reveals an increase in the presence of spherocytes, whereas a
    decrease is seen when sickle cells, target cells, and other poikilocytes are present.
14. A The pH of the buffer is critical in Romanowsky staining. When the pH is too low (less
    than 6.4), the RBCs take up more acid dye (eosin), becoming too pink. Leukocytes also
    show poor nuclear detail when the pH is decreased.
15. B Heinz bodies are irregular, refractile, purple inclusions that are not visible with
    Wright staining but show up with supravital staining. The other three inclusions can be
    detected with Wright staining.
16. B MCH = Hgb × 10/RBC count and is not affected by Hct. MCV = Hct × 10/RBC
    count, and MCHC = Hgb × 100/Hct; therefore, an erroneous Hct will affect these
    parameters. Centrifugal force for microhematocrit determination should be 12,000 g
    for 5 minutes to avoid errors caused by trapped plasma. RDW is calculated by using
    electronic cell counters and reflects the variance in the size of the RBC population.
    Electronic cell counters calculate Hct from MCV and RBC count. Therefore, RDW
    would be affected by an erroneous MCV.
17. B The manual reticulocyte count involves the counting of 1,000 RBCs. The Miller disk
    is a reticle (grid) that is placed in the eyepiece of the microscope and divides the field
    into two squares, one being nine times larger in size than the other. Reticulocytes are
    enumerated in both the squares. Mature RBCs are counted in the smaller one.
18. C MCV, MCH, and MCHC are all within the reference interval (normal range); hence,
    the erythrocytes should be of normal size and should reflect normal concentrations of
    Hgb. Therefore, the anemia is normocytic normochromic.
19. A EDTA and sodium citrate can be used without any effect on the ESR. Anisocytosis
    and poikilocytosis may impede rouleaux formation, thus causing a low ESR. Plasma
    proteins, especially fibrinogen and immunoglobulins, enhance rouleaux, increasing the
    ESR. Reference ranges must be established for tubes of different calibers.
20. B The reticulum within reticulocytes consists of ribonucleic acid (RNA), which cannot
    be stained with Wright stain. Supravital staining with new methylene blue is used to
    identify reticulocytes.
21. A Electronic cell (Coulter) counters use the principle of electrical impedance. Two
    electrodes suspended in isotonic solutions are separated by a glass tube that has a small
    aperture. A vacuum is applied, and as a cell passes through the aperture, it impedes the
    flow of current and generates a voltage pulse.
22. C Automated hematology analyzers enumerate all nucleated cells. NRBCs are counted
    along with WBCs, falsely elevating the WBC count. To correct the WBC count, the
    number of NRBCs per 100 WBCs should be determined. Corrected WBC count =
    (uncorrected WBC count ÷ [NRBC’s + 100]) × 100.
23. B The RDW parameter correlates with the degree of anisocytosis seen on the
    morphological examination. The reference range is 11.5% to 14.5%.
24. C Spherocytes have decreased cell diameter and volume, and this results in loss of
    central pallor and discoid shape. The index most affected is MCHC, usually being in
    excess of 36%.
25. C Standard deviation(s) describes the distribution of a sample of observations. It
    depends on the dispersion of results and is most influenced by reproducibility or
    precision. Because s is influenced by the mean, the coefficient of variation ([s ÷ mean]
    × 100) can be used to compare precision of tests with different means (e.g., WBC and
    RBC counts or low vs. high controls).
26. D Deoxyhemoglobin is the physiological Hgb that results from the unloading of O2 by
    Hgb. This is accompanied by the widening of the space between β-chains and the
    binding of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) on a mole-for-mole basis.
27. A Acidosis is associated with a shift to the right of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation
    curve and, therefore, increased O2 release (decreased affinity of Hgb for O2). Alkalosis
    does the opposite. Multiple blood transfusions shift the curve to the left because
    transfused blood is low in 2,3-DPG. Hgb S and Hgb C do not change the affinity of O2
    for Hgb; however, many hemoglobinopathies do. For example, Hgb Kansas causes a
    right shift, and Hgb Chesapeake causes a left shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation
    curve.
28. B In aplastic anemia, lymphocytes constitute the majority of the nucleated cells seen. In
    aplastic anemia, bone marrow is spotty, with patches of normal cellularity. Absolute
    granulocytopenia is usually present; however, lymphocyte production is less affected.
29. C The normal adult percentage of lymphocytes in a WBC differential is between 20%
    and 44%, although normal ranges vary by institution, patient population, and testing
    methodology. This range is higher in the pediatric population.
30. A There is relative neutropenia in children from ages 4 months to 4 years. Because of
    this, the percentage of lymphocytes is increased in this population. This is commonly
    referred to as a reversal in the normal differential percentage (or inverted differential).
31. C A relative monocyte count of 15% is abnormal, given that the baseline monocyte
    count in a normal differential is between 1% and 8%. An increased monocyte count
    may signal a myeloproliferative process, such as chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, an
    inflammatory response, or abnormal lymphocytes that may have been counted as
    monocytes by an automated cell counter.
32. D In normal erythrocytic maturation, Hgb formation in the late polychromatic
    normoblast stage gives the cytoplasm a prominent pink coloration. The RBC continues
    to produce Hgb throughout the reticulocyte stage of development.
33. D Increases in 2,3-DPG, acidosis, and hypoxia and rise in body temperature all shift the
    Hgb O2 dissociation curve to the right. In anemia, although the number of RBCs is
    reduced, the cells are more efficient at O2 delivery because there is an increase in RBC
    2,3-DPG. This causes the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the right,
    allowing more O2 to be released to tissues.
34. C The structure of Hgb H is β4. Hgb H disease is a severe clinical expression of α-
    thalassemia in which only one α-gene out of four is functioning.
35. D Autoagglutination at room temperature may cause a low RBC count and high MCV
    from an electronic counter. The Hct will be low because it is calculated from the RBC
    count. Low RBC count and low Hct cause falsely high values of MCH and MCHC,
    respectively.

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A  - motorcycles 
A1 - tricycle 
B  - small passenger cars 
B1 - passenger vans and jeepneys 
B2 - commercial vehicles

Each video consists of 2 sets of questionnaires, totaling 120 questions, along with an answer key. The NPDL exam is computerized, featuring 60 questions. Aim for an 80% passing score (that’s 48 correct answers!) to secure your license. Remember, the actual exam has different sets of questions.

The following are the requirements and documents you need to bring when you submit your application:

• Must be atleast 17 years old.
• Physical and mental fitness for driving.
• Proficiency in reading and writing Filipino or English.
• Valid Student’s Permit (at least 1 month old).
• Medical certificate from an LTO Accredited clinic.
• Theoretical Driving Course (TDC) Certificate
• Practical Driving Course (PDC) Certificate
• Birth certificate

Don’t forget to look presentable when you go to the LTO office. And good luck on your exam!

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Ang pagkuha ng lisensya sa pagmamaneho sa Pilipinas ay isang mahalagang milestone para sa maraming tao. Ito ay hindi lamang nagbibigay ng kalayaan at kaginhawaan sa pagmamaneho sa mga kalsada ng bansa, kundi nagpapahiwatig din ng antas ng responsibilidad at kahusayan. Gayunpaman, bago ka makakuha ng iyong lisensya, kailangan mong pumasa sa pagsusulit ng Land Transportation Office (LTO), na tumutukoy sa iba’t ibang paksa tungkol sa mga patakaran, regulasyon, at kaligtasan sa trapiko.

Kung naghahanap ka ng paraan para makakuha ng lisensya sa pagmamaneho sa Pilipinas, kailangan mong kumuha at pumasa sa pagsusulit ng Land Transportation Office (LTO). Ang pagsusulit na ito ay kinakailangan upang makakuha ng lisensya sa pagmamaneho at sumasaklaw sa iba’t ibang paksa tungkol sa mga patakaran, regulasyon, at kaligtasan sa trapiko.

Upang matulungan ka sa paghahanda sa mahalagang pagsusulit na ito, itong video na LTO Exam Reviewer English Non-Professional exam answer key ay nagbibigay ng malawakang pagrerebyu ng mga materyal na karaniwang itinatanong sa pagsusulit ng LTO, kabilang ang mga palatandaan at senyales sa trapiko, mga marka sa kalsada, at mga batas sa pagmamaneho.

LTO English and Tagalog Exam Reviewer Youtube Playlist:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dhZ8YYb6jhg&list=PL7FU2ajkiWn_RMjIRMT4PKmr9PUZxQRHK

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Obtaining a driver’s license in the Philippines is an important milestone for many people. It not only provides you with the freedom and convenience of driving on the country’s roads, but it also signifies a level of responsibility and maturity. However, before you can obtain your license, you’ll need to pass the Land Transportation Office (LTO) exam, which covers a variety of topics related to traffic rules, regulations, and safety.

If you’re looking to get your driver’s license in the Philippines, then you’ll need to take and pass the Land Transportation Office (LTO) exam. The LTO exam is a requirement for obtaining a driver’s license, and it covers various topics related to traffic rules, regulations, and safety.

To help you prepare for this important exam, the video LTO Exam Reviewer English Non-Professional exam answer key provides a comprehensive review of the material that is commonly tested in the LTO exam, including traffic signs and signals, road markings, driving laws.

LTO English and Tagalog Exam Reviewer Youtube Playlist:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dhZ8YYb6jhg&list=PL7FU2ajkiWn_RMjIRMT4PKmr9PUZxQRHK

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Para sa paghahanda sa pagsusulit na ito, narito and LTO Exam Reviewer na nagbibigay ng mga karaniwang katanungan kasama ang mga sagot. Kasama rin dito ang mga palatandaan at senyales sa trapiko, mga marka sa kalsada, at mga batas sa pagmamaneho.
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